What criticisms of Wittgenstein's philosophy of language have been offered? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?What are some good books about Wittgenstein's philosophy of language?Are there any true Wittgensteinians?Given Wittgenstein's characterisation of language as essentially public, can he characterise what form thinking takes?Why should one read the Tracatus?Are negated statements always false in Wittgenstein's “logically perfect language”?What is Wittgenstein's Philosophy of Mathematics?How do we understand and fix reference for scientific units of measure?Certain questions on Derrida's conception of languange?Does something permanent really need to accompany private sensations in Wittgenstein's Private Language Argument?What did Wittgenstein mean by 'trivialities'?
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What criticisms of Wittgenstein's philosophy of language have been offered?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?What are some good books about Wittgenstein's philosophy of language?Are there any true Wittgensteinians?Given Wittgenstein's characterisation of language as essentially public, can he characterise what form thinking takes?Why should one read the Tracatus?Are negated statements always false in Wittgenstein's “logically perfect language”?What is Wittgenstein's Philosophy of Mathematics?How do we understand and fix reference for scientific units of measure?Certain questions on Derrida's conception of languange?Does something permanent really need to accompany private sensations in Wittgenstein's Private Language Argument?What did Wittgenstein mean by 'trivialities'?
In a 2003 obituary, Anna Sherrat described one of my many philosophy heroes, Donald Davidson, as “one of the greatest American philosophers.” She did an excellent job of summarizing one of the perspectives of one of the most respected philosophers of the 20th century, as follows:
[W]e can ascribe beliefs to a speaker only on the basis of prior assumptions about meaning, and vice versa…there will be many different assignments of meaning and belief that fit equally well with a given speaker’s behaviour.
I understand that Wittgenstein transformed the field of philosophy of language with his insight that while objective definitions consists of language, we understand linguistic utterances by interpreting subjective meanings, and we do that according to our individual histories of learning how those utterances were used by the people we’ve known to use them. In fewer words, meaning derives from usage.
As he wrote in Philosophical Investigations, 1953, “the meaning of a word is its use in the language” (Quoted here by Anat Biletzki). He invented the term “language games” to refer to the many different ways that language may be used.
In his IEP article on philosophy of language, Michael P. Wolf reflects a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded:
[I]t can be safely said that Wittgenstein rejected a picture of language as a detached, logical sort of picturing of the facts and inserted a concern for its pragmatic dimensions. One cannot look at the representational dimension of language alone and expect to understand what meaning is. [https://www.iep.utm.edu/lang-phi/#SH3b]
My question is: Does anyone here know of any philosophy book or article (published in that last fifty years), which offers cogent criticism to refute or weaken these theses?
philosophy-of-language wittgenstein semantics contemporary-philosophy
|
show 14 more comments
In a 2003 obituary, Anna Sherrat described one of my many philosophy heroes, Donald Davidson, as “one of the greatest American philosophers.” She did an excellent job of summarizing one of the perspectives of one of the most respected philosophers of the 20th century, as follows:
[W]e can ascribe beliefs to a speaker only on the basis of prior assumptions about meaning, and vice versa…there will be many different assignments of meaning and belief that fit equally well with a given speaker’s behaviour.
I understand that Wittgenstein transformed the field of philosophy of language with his insight that while objective definitions consists of language, we understand linguistic utterances by interpreting subjective meanings, and we do that according to our individual histories of learning how those utterances were used by the people we’ve known to use them. In fewer words, meaning derives from usage.
As he wrote in Philosophical Investigations, 1953, “the meaning of a word is its use in the language” (Quoted here by Anat Biletzki). He invented the term “language games” to refer to the many different ways that language may be used.
In his IEP article on philosophy of language, Michael P. Wolf reflects a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded:
[I]t can be safely said that Wittgenstein rejected a picture of language as a detached, logical sort of picturing of the facts and inserted a concern for its pragmatic dimensions. One cannot look at the representational dimension of language alone and expect to understand what meaning is. [https://www.iep.utm.edu/lang-phi/#SH3b]
My question is: Does anyone here know of any philosophy book or article (published in that last fifty years), which offers cogent criticism to refute or weaken these theses?
philosophy-of-language wittgenstein semantics contemporary-philosophy
1
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
2
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
|
show 14 more comments
In a 2003 obituary, Anna Sherrat described one of my many philosophy heroes, Donald Davidson, as “one of the greatest American philosophers.” She did an excellent job of summarizing one of the perspectives of one of the most respected philosophers of the 20th century, as follows:
[W]e can ascribe beliefs to a speaker only on the basis of prior assumptions about meaning, and vice versa…there will be many different assignments of meaning and belief that fit equally well with a given speaker’s behaviour.
I understand that Wittgenstein transformed the field of philosophy of language with his insight that while objective definitions consists of language, we understand linguistic utterances by interpreting subjective meanings, and we do that according to our individual histories of learning how those utterances were used by the people we’ve known to use them. In fewer words, meaning derives from usage.
As he wrote in Philosophical Investigations, 1953, “the meaning of a word is its use in the language” (Quoted here by Anat Biletzki). He invented the term “language games” to refer to the many different ways that language may be used.
In his IEP article on philosophy of language, Michael P. Wolf reflects a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded:
[I]t can be safely said that Wittgenstein rejected a picture of language as a detached, logical sort of picturing of the facts and inserted a concern for its pragmatic dimensions. One cannot look at the representational dimension of language alone and expect to understand what meaning is. [https://www.iep.utm.edu/lang-phi/#SH3b]
My question is: Does anyone here know of any philosophy book or article (published in that last fifty years), which offers cogent criticism to refute or weaken these theses?
philosophy-of-language wittgenstein semantics contemporary-philosophy
In a 2003 obituary, Anna Sherrat described one of my many philosophy heroes, Donald Davidson, as “one of the greatest American philosophers.” She did an excellent job of summarizing one of the perspectives of one of the most respected philosophers of the 20th century, as follows:
[W]e can ascribe beliefs to a speaker only on the basis of prior assumptions about meaning, and vice versa…there will be many different assignments of meaning and belief that fit equally well with a given speaker’s behaviour.
I understand that Wittgenstein transformed the field of philosophy of language with his insight that while objective definitions consists of language, we understand linguistic utterances by interpreting subjective meanings, and we do that according to our individual histories of learning how those utterances were used by the people we’ve known to use them. In fewer words, meaning derives from usage.
As he wrote in Philosophical Investigations, 1953, “the meaning of a word is its use in the language” (Quoted here by Anat Biletzki). He invented the term “language games” to refer to the many different ways that language may be used.
In his IEP article on philosophy of language, Michael P. Wolf reflects a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded:
[I]t can be safely said that Wittgenstein rejected a picture of language as a detached, logical sort of picturing of the facts and inserted a concern for its pragmatic dimensions. One cannot look at the representational dimension of language alone and expect to understand what meaning is. [https://www.iep.utm.edu/lang-phi/#SH3b]
My question is: Does anyone here know of any philosophy book or article (published in that last fifty years), which offers cogent criticism to refute or weaken these theses?
philosophy-of-language wittgenstein semantics contemporary-philosophy
philosophy-of-language wittgenstein semantics contemporary-philosophy
edited yesterday
Eliran
4,90831433
4,90831433
asked 2 days ago
RortianRortian
16411
16411
1
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
2
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
|
show 14 more comments
1
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
2
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
1
1
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
1
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
1
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
2
2
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
|
show 14 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Colin McGinn, in his book The Philosophy of Language, discusses at least four criticisms of Davidson's theory.
Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth conditions - especially when we restrict ourselves homophonic statements of truth conditions? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves?
We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference.
Davidson's theory provides no explanation of how words come to have semantic properties. The axioms say things like "'Hesperus' denotes Hesperus", but nothing in the theory tells us how it is that a word like "Hesperus" acquires reference. Similarly for predicates and satisfaction. The axioms do not explain what gives marks and sounds the semantic features they have.
Davidson distinguishes sharply between giving logical forms for sentences and giving analysis of individual words. But how robust is that distinction? The intuitive idea that Davidson is working with is that in attributing logical forms we do not break words down into parts, but in lexical analyses we do. [Yet] Davidson's own theory of adverbs construes sentences containing adverbs as quantifications over events with predicates of events. The logical form here is quite different from the superficial syntax of the sentence. The paraphrase finds hidden semantic complexity in adverbs. Why isn't this a case of lexical analysis?
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
|
show 5 more comments
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Colin McGinn, in his book The Philosophy of Language, discusses at least four criticisms of Davidson's theory.
Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth conditions - especially when we restrict ourselves homophonic statements of truth conditions? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves?
We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference.
Davidson's theory provides no explanation of how words come to have semantic properties. The axioms say things like "'Hesperus' denotes Hesperus", but nothing in the theory tells us how it is that a word like "Hesperus" acquires reference. Similarly for predicates and satisfaction. The axioms do not explain what gives marks and sounds the semantic features they have.
Davidson distinguishes sharply between giving logical forms for sentences and giving analysis of individual words. But how robust is that distinction? The intuitive idea that Davidson is working with is that in attributing logical forms we do not break words down into parts, but in lexical analyses we do. [Yet] Davidson's own theory of adverbs construes sentences containing adverbs as quantifications over events with predicates of events. The logical form here is quite different from the superficial syntax of the sentence. The paraphrase finds hidden semantic complexity in adverbs. Why isn't this a case of lexical analysis?
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
|
show 5 more comments
Colin McGinn, in his book The Philosophy of Language, discusses at least four criticisms of Davidson's theory.
Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth conditions - especially when we restrict ourselves homophonic statements of truth conditions? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves?
We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference.
Davidson's theory provides no explanation of how words come to have semantic properties. The axioms say things like "'Hesperus' denotes Hesperus", but nothing in the theory tells us how it is that a word like "Hesperus" acquires reference. Similarly for predicates and satisfaction. The axioms do not explain what gives marks and sounds the semantic features they have.
Davidson distinguishes sharply between giving logical forms for sentences and giving analysis of individual words. But how robust is that distinction? The intuitive idea that Davidson is working with is that in attributing logical forms we do not break words down into parts, but in lexical analyses we do. [Yet] Davidson's own theory of adverbs construes sentences containing adverbs as quantifications over events with predicates of events. The logical form here is quite different from the superficial syntax of the sentence. The paraphrase finds hidden semantic complexity in adverbs. Why isn't this a case of lexical analysis?
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
|
show 5 more comments
Colin McGinn, in his book The Philosophy of Language, discusses at least four criticisms of Davidson's theory.
Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth conditions - especially when we restrict ourselves homophonic statements of truth conditions? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves?
We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference.
Davidson's theory provides no explanation of how words come to have semantic properties. The axioms say things like "'Hesperus' denotes Hesperus", but nothing in the theory tells us how it is that a word like "Hesperus" acquires reference. Similarly for predicates and satisfaction. The axioms do not explain what gives marks and sounds the semantic features they have.
Davidson distinguishes sharply between giving logical forms for sentences and giving analysis of individual words. But how robust is that distinction? The intuitive idea that Davidson is working with is that in attributing logical forms we do not break words down into parts, but in lexical analyses we do. [Yet] Davidson's own theory of adverbs construes sentences containing adverbs as quantifications over events with predicates of events. The logical form here is quite different from the superficial syntax of the sentence. The paraphrase finds hidden semantic complexity in adverbs. Why isn't this a case of lexical analysis?
Colin McGinn, in his book The Philosophy of Language, discusses at least four criticisms of Davidson's theory.
Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth conditions - especially when we restrict ourselves homophonic statements of truth conditions? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves?
We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference.
Davidson's theory provides no explanation of how words come to have semantic properties. The axioms say things like "'Hesperus' denotes Hesperus", but nothing in the theory tells us how it is that a word like "Hesperus" acquires reference. Similarly for predicates and satisfaction. The axioms do not explain what gives marks and sounds the semantic features they have.
Davidson distinguishes sharply between giving logical forms for sentences and giving analysis of individual words. But how robust is that distinction? The intuitive idea that Davidson is working with is that in attributing logical forms we do not break words down into parts, but in lexical analyses we do. [Yet] Davidson's own theory of adverbs construes sentences containing adverbs as quantifications over events with predicates of events. The logical form here is quite different from the superficial syntax of the sentence. The paraphrase finds hidden semantic complexity in adverbs. Why isn't this a case of lexical analysis?
edited 2 days ago
answered 2 days ago
Nick RNick R
3,037926
3,037926
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
|
show 5 more comments
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
Thanks for this. I'd be happy to think a bit about it, but I'd need to have the words that Davidson and Colin used in order to deal with the meanings of the criticisms (and I have other priorities...!), but if you want to work with me we can figure this out. I have some questions about your questions, though. Is it enough to say that knowledge of meaning is knowledge of truth Does this use of the term ‘knowledge’ refer to uncertain knowledge? Can't we ask what this knowledge of truth conditions itself involves? Umm, why wouldn’t we? Preconceptions don’t work in my perspective.
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
2.We need to assign more than reference to a name if we are to capture its full meaning. We need something like sense. But Tarski's semantic apparatus does not specify sense. How then can it function as a theory of meaning. At best it is a theory of reference. Does "full meaning" refer to objective meaning? In the absence of "full" objectivity, I'm not clear that Davidson would dispute this...are you clear about what Davidson would think? Unfortunately, he won't be able to tell us...we can be fairly certain and quite correct about that...
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3. Umm, didn't Davidson accept Wittgenstein's approach? Does McGinn agree?
– Rortian
2 days ago
3
3
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
@Rortian McGinn's book is an introductory, undergraduate level text which surveys ten classic papers in the philosophy of language. I don't think he has an agenda, as such. He characterises Davidson's response to such criticisms as being that from the point of view of philosophical semantics he has achieved his aim - namely, to specify meanings systematically and show how an "infinite mastery can proceed from a finite basis." According to McGinn, Davidson leaves it to psychologists to say more about linguistic meaning. I currently lack sufficient understanding to add to McGinn's comments.
– Nick R
2 days ago
2
2
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
Although Davidson's and Wittgenstein's language philosophies are both in the pragmatic vein, they disagree both on the nature of language (truth conditional vs language games) and its acquisition, see e.g. Verheggen, How social must language be? For a comprehensive recent critique of the private language argument see Azzouni, The Rule-Following Paradox and its Implications for Metaphysics.
– Conifold
yesterday
|
show 5 more comments
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1
How does the IEP quote on Wittgenstein "reflect a consensus in the field that Wittgenstein’s theory, developed over half a century ago, has yet to be superseded"? I don't see it.
– Eliran
2 days ago
@Eliran I'm guessing that this is because W's theory goes beyond the minimalism of D's theory by adding modal imagination to our concept of meaning.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
"Refute" is a strong word. Are you asking about criticisms.
– Nick R
2 days ago
1
It would help if you didn't have off-topic asides like the sentence about Sherrat complimenting Davidson. And this first paragraph is over-laboured too.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago
2
@Rortian Of course I'm not certain all my beliefs are absolutely true. Not sure what that's got to do with improving this question and helping you make it more focused and concise.
– curiousdannii
2 days ago